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1 Corinthians 11:3-16 repeats the same message - a wife is to be in submission to her husband. This passage is not about a requirement for wives to wear a silk or cotton veil. Some would disagree and say Paul is requiring women to wear a veil during prayer and when the Bible is opened and taught. If that were the case, why is the Old Testament silent on the subject? If this is a universal principle, especially when other cultures such as the Romans and Greeks were in violation, why did God not communicate the principle in the Old Testament? It appears Paul is addressing a cultural situation in the Greek city of Corinth where Christian women did not want to follow the custom of the day of wearing a sign of submission. Historical literature gives us an insight into Greek religious worship and supports this conclusion. An inscription providing rules about religious worship reads, Women are not to have their hair bound up, and men must enter with bared heads. So in verse 15, Paul indicates a womans long hair is her best covering. It completely surrounds her head. It is her glory. Pauls reference to uncovered heads may refer to hair that is bound up, that is, her head is not covered by her hair. Paul encourages the Greek women to show submission by covering their heads - either with hair or a veil, and concludes that her long hair is her real covering. The fact that Paul is addressing a cultural situation in Corinth is evident in v. 16 when he says, we have no such practice, nor have the churches of God.
In conclusion, men and women do have different roles. This
passage along with Eph. 5:22-33, Col. 3:18 and 1 Pet. 3:1-7 say
that 1) women should be in submission to men, 2) it is fitting
for a woman to show her submission to her husband and 3) the head
covering, an external sign of a womans submission in the Corinthian
culture, is not universally required.
Question #2: Are men and women mutually dependent on one another?
This passage (v. 11-12) also affirms the mutual dependence of
husbands and wives on one another. This is a transcultural principle
rooted in Gods biological design of procreation. This principle is supported elsewhere in scripture such as 1 Pet. 3:7 where Paul
reminds the husband that his wife is a fellow heir of the grace
of life. While Gal. 3:28 does not support this point it does tell us that men and women are equal before God with respect to salvation; that is, there are no advantages before God regarding our eternal destiny. Therefore, we conclude that husbands and wives have different roles and are also mutually dependent on each other.
Question #3: If a woman can pray and prophesy in church, can she
teach a man? (v.4-5)
In answering this question, we need to discover what it
means to prophesy. What is prophesying? There are two ways to
answer this question. The first approach is to determine what
it does not mean by observing how it is used in specific passages,
and the second approach is by defining it. The first approach observes that apostle, prophet and teacher, for example, occur as a list of gifted individuals in 1 Cor. 12:28-29,
. . . God has appointed in the church, first apostles, second
prophets, third teachers, then miracles, then gifts of healings,
administrations, various kinds of tongues. All are not apostles,
are they? All are not prophets, are they? All are not teachers,
are they? All are not workers of miracles, are they? (NASB) 1 Cor. 12:28-29
This passage clearly shows that apostles are not prophets, who
are not teachers. Each is listed separately. Prophesying
is not teaching. Likewise 1 Cor. 14:6 provides the same conclusion
but with a stronger statement showing that teaching and prophesying
are not the same, |
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